Learning Victory Scholarship Exam Sample Paper 2

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Comprehensive English

1 / 20

Pick the most effective word from the given word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

The conference was successful, your style of presentation was ……………………….; everyone liked it.

2 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

Two miles beyond that pasture _____  seen hundreds of cattle including some lambs. 

3 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

The teachers face the problem in their day today lives as _____ an ordinary man of our society.

4 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

If I _____ you I would not stand this humiliation.

5 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

The news _____ by him. 

6 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

One of the developing or under-developed countries ______ not in favour of launching chemical warfare.

7 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence

Is it newspapers that_____ us news

8 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

Either you or she _____ this.

9 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

Many a girl _____ the movie

10 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

______ either of the two candidates been selected for the post of Branch Manager.

11 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

The police _____ on duty 

12 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

The number of admissions _____ gradually fallen off.

13 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

The higher you go,  the more difficult it _____ to breathe.

14 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to make a proper sentence.

Everybody among the businessmen_____ enjoying drinking when the manager of the hotel was shot dead.

15 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

He with his friends _____ for hostel night.

16 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

The owner of these shops_____. 

17 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

It is I who _____ calling you.

18 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

What a sensation it would cause if it_____ now discovered that such a man has left behind a diary 

19 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

A Great poet and leader _____.

20 / 20

Choose the most suitable alternative to ake a proper sentence.

Neither nor you _____ to go. 

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Basic Maths

1 / 20

If the price of milk falls down by 20% by how much percent must a householder increase it’s consumption, so as not to decrease his expenditure on this item? 

2 / 20

Find HCF and LCM of 0.27, 1.8 and 0.036

3 / 20

If in an examination, the marks obtained by Preeti is 20% less than that of Vandana, then marks obtained by Vandana is how much percent more than marks obtained by Preeti?

4 / 20

Twenty-seven percent of Arun’s monthly salary is equal to Raju’s monthly salary. If Arun’s monthly salary is Rs 25,000 then what is Raju’s annual salary? 

5 / 20

Jyoti’s monthly expense on shopping is 25%, travelling is 20%, food is 45% and 10% on other recreational activities. What is the total amount she spent on traveling and food together? 

6 / 20

Fresh grapes contain 80% of water, while dry grapes contain 10% water. If the weight of dry grapes is 500 kg,  then what is it’s the total weight when it is fresh? 

7 / 20

Suhas sold an item for Rs 7,500 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price,  should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 25%?

8 / 20

How many numbers less than 10000 are there, which are divisible by 21, 35 and 63?

9 / 20

What is the least number,  which when divided by 8,9,12,15 leaves a remainder of 1 in each case?

10 / 20

Three different containers contain different qualities of a mixture of milk and water, whose measurements are 403 kg, 434 kg and 465 kg. What biggest measure must be there to measure all the three qualities exactly?

11 / 20

The average of 0,3,5,7,x is 8, then find the value of x. 

12 / 20

Find the average of first 40 natural numbers. 

13 / 20

If p:q= 3:4 and q:r=8:9 then p:r is ?

14 / 20

If a:b+b:c+c:a= 6:7:8 and  a+ b+ c = 14, then the value of c is

15 / 20

Find the simple interest on Rs 1600 at 6% per annum for 146 days. 

16 / 20

A certain sum is invested at a simple interest. If it trebles in 10 years, what is the rate of interest?

17 / 20

If the wages of 12 men for 30 days be Rs.4200, the wages of 18 men for 24 days is

18 / 20

12 men can do a piece of work in 12 days. In how many days will 3 men do the same work? 

19 / 20

20 person can make 15 toys in 12 hours. How many toys can 10 person’s make in 8 hours? 

20 / 20

If 5 boys take 7 hours to pack 35 toys,  how many boys can pack 65 toys in 3 hours?

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Mental Ability

1 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement ‘Smoking is injurious to health’. A warning printed on the cigarette packets.
Assumptions
I. People read printed matter on a cigarette packet.
II. People take careful note of a warning.
III. Non-smoking promotes health.

2 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement The book is so prepared that even a layman can study science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions
I. A layman wishes to study science without a teacher.
II. A teacher may not always be available to teach science.
III. A layman generally finds it different to learn science on its own.

3 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement “Fly with us and experience the pleasure of flying”. An advertisement by an airlines.
Assumptions
I. More passengers may be attracted to travel by the airline after reading the advertisement.”
II. People generally may prefer an enjoyable flight.
III. Other airlines may not be offering the same facilities.

4 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement A warning in a train compartment “To stop train, pull chain. Penalty for improper use Rs.500.”
Assumption
I. Some people misuse the alarm chain.
II. On certain occasions, people may want to stop a running train.

5 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement Provide mid-day meals to the children in primary schools to increase the number of students attending schools.
Assumptions
I. Mid-day meals will attract the child to the schools.
II. Those children who are otherwise deprived of good food will attend the schools.

6 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement Provide mid-day meals to the children in primary schools to increase the number of students attending schools.
Assumptions
I. Mid-day meals will attract the child to the schools.
II. Those children who are otherwise deprived of good food will attend the schools.

7 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement A sentence in the letter to the candidates called for the written examination. You have to bear your expenses on travel etc.
Assumption
I. If not clarified all the candidates may claim reimbursement of expenses.
II. Many organization reimburses expenses on travel to candidates called for the written examination.

8 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement “All are cordially invited to attend the entertainment programmes. It is free”. An announcement in a newspaper.
Assumptions
I. People generally do not go to entertainment programmes which are free.
II. Some people, through interested in entertainment programmes, cannot afford to purchase the tickets.
III. Generally, a free entertainment programme is of a good quality.

9 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement The national air carrier has decided to start weekly air service from town A to town B.
Assumptions
I. There will be enough passengers to make the operation economically viable.
II. Other carriers may not start such a service.
III. The people staying around these towns can afford the cost of air travel.

10 / 50

The question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement A State Government suspended two additional district judges.
Assumptions
I. They were negligent in discharging duties.
II. There was a charge of misconduct against them.
III. The government officials were biased against them.

11 / 50

In the following question consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II

Statement Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments
I. Yes, incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
II. No, rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So, why offer extra incentives!

12 / 50

In the following question consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II

Statement Should ‘education’ be brought under the control of Central Government like defense?
Arguments
I. No, education is a state subject and it should remain with the state
II. Yes, this is the only way to establish uniformity in the growth of education across the states.

13 / 50

In the following question consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II

Statement Should ‘education’ be brought under the control of Central Government like defense?
Arguments
I. No, education is a state subject and it should remain with the state
II. Yes, this is the only way to establish uniformity in the growth of education across the states.

14 / 50

In the following question consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II

Statement Should be Government open more medical colleges in the country?
Arguments
I. Yes, there is an urgent need for qualified doctors and the ratio between doctors and the citizens is the lowest in India.
II. No, the Government should ensure quality education in the existing Medical Colleges as the majority of the college lack necessary infrastructure.

15 / 50

Two statements are given in the following question, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding known facts.

Statements All trucks fly. Some scooters fly.
Conclusions
I. All trucks are scooters.
II. Some scooters do not fly

16 / 50

Two statements are given in the following question, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding known facts.

Statements Some teachers are followers. Some followers are famous
Conclusions
I. Some teachers are famous.
II. Some followers are teachers.

17 / 50

The following questions have two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd.  Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement is correct.

18 / 50

The following questions have two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd.  Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement is correct.

19 / 50

The question given below has a set of three or four statements. Each set of statements is further divided into three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment is the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.

A. X is an actor. Some actors are pretty. So X is pretty.
B. Some men are cops. All cops are brave. So some men are brave
C. All the actors are brave. Some men are actors. So some men are brave.
D. All the actors are pretty. X is not an actor. So X is pretty.

20 / 50

The question given below has a set of three or four statements. Each set of statements is further divided into three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment is the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.

A. Some apples are sour. This fruit is an apple. So this fruit is sour.
B. Rita is a nurse. All nurses are tall women. Rita is a tall woman.
C. Army officers are smart. Airforce officers are smart. So military officers are smart.
D. No animal like fire. Aardvarks are animals. So Aardvarks do not like fire.

21 / 50

Find out the missing number in the following series 4, 10, 22, 46, 94,?

22 / 50

Find the missing term in the following series.
11, 23, 48, 99, ……. , 409

23 / 50

Find out the missing number in the following series 4, 10, 22, 46, 94,?

24 / 50

In the question one term is wrong. Find out the wrong/incorrect term

11, 22, 44, 77, 122

25 / 50

Complete the given series

AZ, GT, MN, …….., YB

26 / 50

In a certain code,  15789 is written as XTZAL and 2346 is written as NPSU. How is 23549 written in that code?

27 / 50

If ‘tee see pee’ means Drink fruit juice’, ‘see kee lee’ means ‘ Juice is sweet’ and lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?

28 / 50

In a certain code, ‘786’ means ‘study very hard’, ‘958’ means ‘hard work pays’ and ‘645’ means ‘study and work’. Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?

29 / 50

If D = 4 and COVER = 63, then BASIC is equal to

30 / 50

In a certain language, TRANSMISSION is written as RTANMSISISON. How will COMMUNICATIONS be written in the same language?

31 / 50

Worker and Product

32 / 50

Grammatical

33 / 50

Anand is a son of Prema. Rajeev is the brother of Prema. Neha is the daughter of Rashmi. Neha is a sister of Rajeev. How is Anand related to Rashmi?

34 / 50

Golu is a son of Bhola. Sheetal is the daughter of Golu. Chitra is the daughter of Dilip and Dilip is a brother of Bhola. How is Chitra related to Sheetal?

35 / 50

A is a mother of B. C is a son of A. D is a brother of E. E is the daughter of B. Who is a grandmother of E.

36 / 50

A man is facing West. He turns 45 degrees in the clockwise direction and then another 180 degrees in the same direction and then 270 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?

37 / 50

Umesh goes 30 m South, then turns left and walk 40 m, then again turn left and walk 20 m, then again turns left and walks 40 m. How many meters is he from his original position?

38 / 50

In Ravi’s clock shop, two clocks were brought for repairs. One clock has the cuckoo coming out every 16 min, while the other one has the cuckoo coming out every 18 min. Bothe cuckoos come out at 12:00 noon. When will they both come out together again?

39 / 50

In the year 1996, the republic day was celebrated on Friday. On which day was the Independence day celebrated in the year 2000?

40 / 50

Mohit picked up a prime number from the set of the first 20 natural numbers. What is the probability that it is 7?

41 / 50

What is the probability that a number selected from the first fifty natural numbers is divisible by 3?

42 / 50

A number is chosen at random from the set {2, 4, 6,……….. 200}. What is the probability that it is a perfect square

43 / 50

Select the correct alternative from the given choices

Which of the following is a perfect square?

44 / 50

Select the correct alternative from the given choices

Find the smallest number that should be multiplied with 1680 to make it a perfect square.

45 / 50

Select the correct alternative from the given choices

Find the lowest number with which 98304 should be divided to make it a perfect cube

46 / 50

Select the correct alternative from the given choices

The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 48.
What is the sum of squares of these numbers

47 / 50

Select the correct alternative from the given choices

The sum of five consecutive even numbers of a set P is 110. What is the sum of five consecutive even numbers of a set Q whose smallest number is 24 more than the largest number of set p?

48 / 50

Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 6 and 8?

49 / 50

What is the lowest number that should be added to 48645 to make it divisible by 7

50 / 50

Find the smallest four-digit number which is a multiple of 128.

Your score is

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – General Knowledge

1 / 150

Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha’s life?

  1. Kanthaka 
  2. Alara Kalama
  3. Channa
  4. Goshala Maskariputra 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

2 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. Lime mortar was never used at Mohenjodaro in the construction of dwellings.
  2. At Dholavira, a stone was never used in the construction of dwellings.

Which of the statement (s) given above are/is correct?

3 / 150

Consider the following statements regarding the Rigveda 

  1. It is the earliest among the vedas.
  2. It is a contemporary composition.
  3. Collection of hymns offered to various deities by various families of poets and sages.
  4. It is divided into eight Mandalas.

Which of the statements given above are/is correct?

4 / 150

Which of the following were the Yajnas that are performed during the Vedic age?

  1. Vratyastoma Yajna
  2. Asvamedha Yajna
  3. Rajasuya Yajna

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

5 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
  2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were patrons of Buddhism.

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?

6 / 150

Which of the following places are known for early Buddhist stupas?

  1. Bharhut 
  2. Sanchi
  3. Amaravati
  4. Nagarjunakonda
  5. Kanchipuram

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

7 / 150

Statement 1 Sculptures of Gandhara School stylistically are typically linked to the Greco-Roman and the Parthian art of Iran.

Statement 2 The earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat Valley pre-dated the Kushana period, which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well-established in the pre-Kushana period.

8 / 150

Which Indian kingdom is wrongly matched below with its capital?

9 / 150

 The inscriptions of Ashoka are written in

  1. Greek
  2. Kharosthi
  3. Aramaic
  4. Sanskrit

Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

10 / 150

Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that

  1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers.
  2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth.
  3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge.
  4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib or Vice-Regent of the Empire.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

11 / 150

With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the Feudal System?

  1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority.
  2. The emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of the land.
  3. Creation of the lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

12 / 150

 What is the correct chronological order of the following foreign writers in India?

  1. Megasthenese
  2. Fa-Hien
  3. Ptolemy
  4. Pliny

13 / 150

Consider the following statements relating to Sher Shah

  1. During Sher Shah’s reign, the village panchayat and zamindars were not allowed to deal with civil criminal cases at the local level.
  2. Sher Shah set-up army cantonments in different parts of the empire and a strong garrison was posted in each of them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

14 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. When Ala-ud-din Bahman Shah was proclaimed King of the Deccan, Ibn Batutah was traveling in India.
  2. When Abdur Razzak came to India, Khizr Khan was the Sultan of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

15 / 150

 Consider the following four saints

  1. Kabir
  2. Nanak
  3. Chaitanya
  4. Tulsidas

What is the correct chronological order in which they flourished?

16 / 150

Consider the following Bhakti saints

  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

17 / 150

 Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

18 / 150

What was the immediate cause for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?

19 / 150

Which of the following statements about the fourth Anglo Mysore War is correct?

20 / 150

 Which of the following statements about the fourth Anglo Mysore War are correct?

  1. The Madras Council suggested a policy of rigorous and intense attack on Mysore. (C)
  2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive the Triple Alliance.
  3. Tipu sent emissaries to Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius and Kabul enlisting support against the English. 
  4. The war was a very short duration though decisive.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

21 / 150

Arrange the following in the proper sequence of their happening.

  1. Advent of the Dutch in India
  2. British occupation of Bengal
  3. Battle of Wandiwash
  4. Battle of Buxar

22 / 150

The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the 19th century came about in order to

23 / 150

Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct?

  1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants.
  2. The Zamindars were recognized as the proprietors of land.
  3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand.
  4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

24 / 150

 During the Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

25 / 150

The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because 

  1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.
  2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that session
  3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that session.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

26 / 150

With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
  2. Dhrupad is primarily devotional and spiritual music.

       3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

27 / 150

With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements

  1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
  2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
  3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

28 / 150

Statement 1 Insolation is greatest when the Sun is directly overhead and the Sun’s rays are vertical.

Statement 2 When the Sun is lower in the sky, the same amount of solar energy spreads over a greater area of the ground surface, so insolation is lower.

29 / 150

Consider the following statements about the solar system

  1. Neptune is the first planet found by mathematical prediction.
  2. Mars has the longest revolution period in our solar system.
  3. Mercury is the only planet in our solar system that rotates East to West.
  4. Jupiter has the fastest rotation period in our solar system.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

30 / 150

The term ‘syzygy’ is referred to when the 

31 / 150

Why does the Earth assume the shape of an oblate ellipsoid?

32 / 150

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

           Geographical Feature                 Region

  1. Abyssinian Plateau                    Arabia
  2. Atlas Mountains                        North-Western Africa 
  3. Guiana Highlands                         South-Western Africa
  4. Okavango Basin                            Patagonia

33 / 150

Which of the following is/are the characteristics/characteristics of Indian coal? 

  1. High ash content
  2. Low Sulphur content 
  3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

34 / 150

Which among the following areas is conductive for well irrigation?

35 / 150

Which of the following statements relating to the tsunami is/are correct?

      As the tsunami leave the deep water of the open sea and travel towards shallow water

  1. The speed is reduced considerably.
  2. They attain enormous height.
  3. They appear as a gentle rise and fall of the sea.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

36 / 150

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements

  1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other states.
  2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of wetlands.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

37 / 150

Which one of the following statements regarding the water cycle is correct?

38 / 150

A particular state in India has the following characteristics

  1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through Northern Rajasthan.
  2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 
  3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this state.

Which one among the following states has all the above characteristics?

39 / 150

Which one of the following groups of Indian states has a common frontier with Bhutan?

40 / 150

Consider the following statements 

  1. Mahadeo hills
  2. Sahyadri Parvat
  3. Satpura range

What is the correct sequence of the above from North to the South?

41 / 150

If a ship has to go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk Strait. Why?

42 / 150

 Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

  1. They are generally red in color.
  2. They are rich in Nitrogen and Potash.
  3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
  4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

43 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. Chilka lake 
  2. Pulicat lake
  3. Vembanad lake

 Which of the above is/are Lagoon(s)?

44 / 150

Consider the following crops of India

  1. Cowpea
  2. Green gram
  3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder, and green manure?

45 / 150

What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over the North-Western part of India?

  1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high-pressure area.
  2. The Northern plain would become cold.
  3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the day time.
  4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

46 / 150

Consider the following

  1. Star tortoise
  2. Monitor lizard
  3. Pygmy hog
  4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

47 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. India is the original home of cotton plants.
  2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

48 / 150

Consider the following areas

  1. Bandipur
  2. Bhitarkanika
  3. Manas
  4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are tiger reserves?

49 / 150

Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct?

  1. Eco mark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) for the product conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem.
  2. The purpose of the mark is to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing environmental impact. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

50 / 150

With reference to the Indian transport system, consider the following statements

  1. The Indian railway system is the largest in the world.
  2. National highways cater to 45% of the total land transport demand.
  3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road.
  4. National Highway number 7 is the longest in the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

51 / 150

The first Indian railway train in 1853, journeyed between

52 / 150

Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is

53 / 150

As climate change continues, we expect that the countries with the 

54 / 150

Biodiversity in the world is

55 / 150

Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

  1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
  2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD. Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

56 / 150

With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
  2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
  3. CITES is legally binding on the states that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

57 / 150

Global climate change may increase the number of worldwide famines by

58 / 150

What is bioregion?

59 / 150

What is the key difference between a dominant species and a keystone species?

60 / 150

Plankton consists of 

61 / 150

Consider the following statements 

  1. An Inter-University Consortium on Cryosphere and Climate Change has undertaken for the study of glaciers.
  2. It is funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences. 
  3. The study of different glaciers is aimed at examining the link between cryosphere changes and impacts on society.
  4. The study involves glaciers in Antarctica.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

62 / 150

The acidification of the ocean’s increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

  1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
  2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
  3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplankton larvae will be adversely affected.
  4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

63 / 150

Consider the following statements regarding the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau

  1. It is a statutory body.
  2. It works under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
  3. It was awarded during the 15th Conference and the Parties of the CITES at Doha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

64 / 150

‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

65 / 150

Which of the following is/are the principle feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

  1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
  2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.
  3. Devolution of legislative authority by the center to the provinces.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

66 / 150

Consider the following statements about the Indian elections

  1. The Constitution provides that elections to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of states are to be held on the basis of universal adult suffrage.
  2. The Constitution stipulates that there will be separate electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

67 / 150

Which of the following statements about the Hastings Plans of 1772 is/are correct?

  1. Each district was to have a civil and criminal Court.
  2. The judges were helped by native assessors who were skilled in Hindu and Islamic laws.
  3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was mainly meant to settle mercantile cases exceeding Rs. 10,000 in values.
  4. These Courts did not put into place any procedural improvements.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

68 / 150

The purpose of adjournment motion in our Parliament is

69 / 150

 Parliamentary democracy is one where

  1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place.
  2. the government is responsible is not to the public but to the elected representatives.
  3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

70 / 150

Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in 1951.
  2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
  3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
  4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matter of national security.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

71 / 150

Which one among the following statements is not correct?

The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with

72 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. As per the Constitution of India, there are ten Fundamental Duties for every citizen of India.
  2. The promotion of international peace and security is stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

73 / 150

 Which among the following is the Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?

74 / 150

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the 

75 / 150

Economic Justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

76 / 150

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious domination or any section thereof shall have the right

  1. To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.   
  2. To manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
  3. To own and acquire movable and immovable property.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

77 / 150

Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help?

78 / 150

Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental Right of Life and Personal Liberty as guaranteed under Article-21 of the Constitution of India?

  1. The right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
  2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action.
  3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
  4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by the law.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

79 / 150

Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?

80 / 150

Consider the following statements 

  1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India.
  2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
  3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to caste his/her vote in general or state elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

81 / 150

Assertion (A) The adoption of the Uniform Civil Code, though mentioned in the constitution of India, is yet to be accomplished.

Reason (R) Directive Principles are non-justiciable.

82 / 150

Which of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?

83 / 150

Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
  2. Gives official status to certain religions 
  3. Provides the freedom to profess any religion
  4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

84 / 150

A national emergency can be declared by the President only

  1. on grounds of war
  2. on grounds of external aggression.
  3. on grounds of internal disturbance.
  4. on the written recommendation of the union cabinet.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

85 / 150

Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India

  1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
  2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union, but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

86 / 150

During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state, the President can

  1. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor.
  2. declared that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercised by Parliament.
  3. assume certain powers of the High Courts.
  4. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

87 / 150

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

88 / 150

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

89 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

90 / 150

Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of a writ of quo warranto?

  1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
  2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
  3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such a person to that office. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

91 / 150

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

92 / 150

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements

  1. The Council of Ministers of the Union is responsible for both the houses of Parliament.
  2. The President of India cannot appoint anyone as Union Minister not recommended by the Prime Minister.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

93 / 150

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development 
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

94 / 150

Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?

  1. Governors of States
  2. The Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts
  3. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court
  4. The Vice-President

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

95 / 150

Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?

  1. Chairman, Finance Commission
  2. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
  3. Chief Minister of a Union Territory

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

96 / 150

Which among the following is a function of the Pro-tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

97 / 150

The Legislative Council in a state in India can be created or abolished by the 

98 / 150

The Parliament of India consists of 

99 / 150

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

100 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that house.
  2. While the nominated members of the Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

101 / 150

Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?

102 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. No Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendations of the President of India. 
  2. The Prime Minister appoints the Finance Commission for the distribution of taxes between the union and the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

103 / 150

Consider the following statements

  1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker for Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
  2. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Ministers. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

104 / 150

Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to

105 / 150

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
  4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

106 / 150

Which of the statements is not correct?

107 / 150

Which one of the following statements is correct?

108 / 150

The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the 

109 / 150

Which one of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Supreme Court of India on 25th September 2014 struck down the National Tax Tribunal (NTT) Act, 2005 terming it as unconstitutional.
  2. Judgment rules that the law is unconstitutional on two grounds i.e., separation of powers between the Judiciary and the Executive and Judicial Superintendence.

           Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

110 / 150

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
  2. Appointing the ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

111 / 150

What do you understand by the dual role of the Governor?

112 / 150

1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are to be elected

113 / 150

In December, 2015, Saudi Arabia announced how many States Islamic military alliance against terrorism ?

114 / 150

Which currency was anointed as one of the worlds elite currencies in December 2015 by International Monetary Fund (IMF)

115 / 150

The Union Cabinet chaired by the prime minister Narendra Modi has given its approval to carry out official amendments in ‘The National Waterways Bill, 2015’ on the recommendations of whom?

116 / 150

Which state has become India’s first state to allow the members of state LEgislature to raise online questions in an effort to move towards complete digitisation of the process. The step is aimed at bringing the paperwork to minimum?

117 / 150

Prime Minister Narendra Modi released commemorative coin as part of the 125th birthday anniversary year celebrations of Dr.BR Ambedkar. What are the denominations?

118 / 150

Choose the correct statements regarding Jason-3 Mission:

119 / 150

Which state has become the first state in India to start the Rotavirus vaccination project ?

120 / 150

Which state government has launched the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 with an aim to benefit more than one third of the state’s population ?

121 / 150

The Union government approved a post facto agreement to expand bilateral cooperation in the field of solar energy and also approved another agreement to roll out the ‘Make in India’ campaign for the capital goods sector with which country ?

122 / 150

As per the latest report released by credit rating agency Brickwork Ratings, which state is the biggest economy within India in terms of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)

123 / 150

Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one of the following fields ?

124 / 150

The headquarters of, which one of the following is located in Paris ?

125 / 150

The ‘Red Data Books’ Published by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCNNR) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

126 / 150

The term ‘Butterfly stroke’ is related with

127 / 150

LASER stands for

128 / 150

NJAC is a commission associated with the appointment of Judges in India NJAC stand for

129 / 150

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. Arundhati Roy : The God of Small Things
2. Kiran Desai : The Inheritance of Loss
3. Jhumpa Lahiri : The Namesake

130 / 150

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

131 / 150

The first telegraph line in India was laid between

132 / 150

The first National Park, established in India is

133 / 150

Which one of the following countries has developed the Tianhe-1A, one of the world’s fastest supercomputers?

134 / 150

Consider the following statements
1. Supercomputer Saga-220 is capable of performing at the speed above 200 TFIOPS.
2. India has only 2 supercomputer systems on the Top 500 supercomputer list of the world.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

135 / 150

Choose the correct statement(s) about Akash missile

136 / 150

Which one among the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage ?

137 / 150

If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, helium and nitrogen gases respectively and left in air, which balloon reaches to the highest distance from the Earth ?

138 / 150

An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by 

139 / 150

A fan produces a feeling of comfort during the hot weather, because 

140 / 150

Which one among the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ?

141 / 150

Statement I Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirgranthas.
Statement II The sect was found 200 years earlier by Parsva.

142 / 150

Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rigveda?

1. Rigvedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism.
2. There are striking similarities between the Rigvedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the houses of the priest who was called yajaman.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds, those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

143 / 150

According  to the Dharmashastras, ‘Anuloma’ is a marriage between a

144 / 150

Consider the following statements
1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock-cut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas. Shaivas and Jainas limited these in later centuries.
2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas, and Jainas excavated temples at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

145 / 150

Which one among the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society?