Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam (Phase 1 Question Paper with Answers) by careerMarch 28, 2020April 8, 20208 Comments on Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam (Phase 1 Question Paper with Answers)Scholarship Exam, Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam - Phase 1 question paper 0% Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Comprehensive English 1 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. Of the two answers, this is definitely better Of the two answers this is definitely better No error 2 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. The burglars were caught just as they were about to escape from the jail The burglars were caught just as they were about to escape from the jail No error 3 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. In a hour’s time when I had finished the work, I got up and slipped out unnoticed In a hour’s time when I had finished the work I got up and slipped out unnoticed No error 4 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. He should mix his authority with little of courtesy and common sense He should mix his authority with little of courtesy and common sense No error 5 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences. The trees in a forest must be properly counted and numbered and proper entries be made in the register The trees in a forest must be properly counted and numbered and proper entries be made in the register No error 6 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The success of our efforts depend upon the number of people who actually use the new method The success of our efforts depend upon the number of people who actually use the new method No error 7 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.More leisure as well as abundance of goods are attainable through automation More leisure as well as abundance of goods are attainable through automation No error 8 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.He had taken off his shirt and threw it on the floor before entering the house He had taken off his shirt and threw it on the floor before entering the house No error 9 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The boys worked slowly for they knew that as soon as they finish one exercise the teacher would tell them to do the next The boys worked slowly for they knew that as soon as they finish one exercise the teacher would tell them to do the next No error 10 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The gentleman together with his wife and daughter were drowned The gentleman together with his wife and daughter were drowned No error 11 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The issue are very complex and the problem is that they are bound to be obscured by these hypocritical politicians The issue are very complex and the problem is that they are bound to be obscured by these hypocritical politicians No error 12 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.An earthquake is a natural phenomena nobody can check it, be sure. An earthquake is a natural phenomena nobody can check it, be sure. No error. 13 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.All the evidence against him were rejected by the High Court. All the evidence against him were rejected by the High Court. No error. 14 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The doctor declared that the patient’s intestine was not working properly and so he needed medical treatment for a long time The doctor declared that the patient’s intestine was not working properly and so he needed medical treatment for a long time No error 15 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.Children are prone to making mischiefs if they have nothing to do Children are prone to making mischiefs if they have nothing to do No error 16 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.This is the best which we can do in the present circumstances This is the best which we can do in the present circumstances No error 17 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.The articles published in this magazine are better than that magazine The articles published in this magazine are better than that magazine No error 18 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.There is none who can help you in this crucial moment of your career There is none who can help you in this crucial moment of your career No error 19 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.Anyone of the students is not allowed to keep their books in the staff room Anyone of the students Is not allowed to keep Their books in the staff room No error 20 / 20 Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.If you are good to people you will be treated well by themselves If you are good to people you will be treated well by themselves No error Your score is 0% Restart 0% Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Basic Maths 1 / 20 The difference between the largest 4 digit number and the smallest 3 digit number is 9899 8999 9989 9889 2 / 20 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9 ? 7532458 6812348 6234588 4701828 3 / 20 In a division problem, the division is 4 times the quotient and 3 times the remainder. If the remainder is 4, the dividend is 36 40 12 30 4 / 20 Which of the least numbers should be added at 1000 to make it exactly divisible by 45? 35 80 20 10 5 / 20 The sum of odd numbers from 10 to 60 is 775 468 921 875 6 / 20 353.5+2.32+43.23 is equal to 400.00 398.5 399.05 None of these 7 / 20 4.3 x 0.13 is equal to 0.599 0.622 5.99 None of these 8 / 20 Divide 0.81 by 9 is equal to 0.9 0.09 9 None of these 9 / 20 Divide 0.42 by 0.007 is equal to 600 60 6000 None of these 10 / 20 Find the HCF of 15.5 and 0.90 0.01 0.1 1.0 None of these 11 / 20 7865-4128+372 = ? + 2014 2095 2905 1915 2005 12 / 20 19 x 11 – 12 + 444 ÷ 37 = ? – 110 310 200 210 190 13 / 20 1.43 x 1.43 + 0.43 x 0.43 – 0.86 x 1.43 = ? 0 1 2 3 14 / 20 Two third of 10% of 60% of A is 32. Find the value of A. 750 600 800 1250 15 / 20 The number of seats in the cinema hall has increased by 25%. The cost of a ticket is also increased by 10%. The overall percentage increase in the revenue is 10.5 27.5 37.5 40.5 16 / 20 In an examination, 20% of the total number of students failed in History, 15% of total number of students failed in Hindi and 5% of the total number of students failed in both. The percentage of students who passed in both the subjects is 60 80 75 70 17 / 20 In order to pass in an examination, a student is required to get 780 marks out of the aggregate marks. Sonu got 728 marks and was declared failed by 5%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the examination? 1040 1100 1000 None of these 18 / 20 If in an examination, the marks obtained by Preeti is 20% less than that of Vandana, then marks obtained by Vandana is how much percent more than marks obtained by Preeti? 12 25 40 20 19 / 20 If the price of milk falls down by 20%, by how much percent must a householder increase its consumption, so as not to decrease his expenditure on this item? 30 20 10 25 20 / 20 60% of a number is 24 less than 3/4th of that number. Find the number. 120 130 160 190 Your score is 0% Restart 0% Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Mental Ability 1 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.Statement Vitamin E tablets improve circulation, keep your complexion in a glowing condition.AssumptionsI. People like a glowing complexionII. Complexion becomes dull in the absence of circulation If only Assumption I is implicit If only Assumption II is implicit If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit If both Assumption I and II are implicit 2 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.Statement If you have any problems, bring them to me.AssumptionsI. You have some problems.II. I can solve any problem. If only Assumption I is implicit If only Assumption II is implicit If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit If both Assumption I and II are implicit 3 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.Statement Detergents should be used to clean clothes.AssumptionsI. While going down, the lift is unable to carry any load.II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt. If only Assumption I is implicit If only Assumption II is implicit If neither Assumption I nor II is implicit If both Assumption I and II are implicit 4 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.Statement Give this packet to Mr.X at his residence and return immediately. In case you are likely to be late, inform me. Mr.A tells his clerk.AssumptionsI. The clerk never informs about his late coming.II. The clerk may not obey Mr.A’s instructions.III. The clerk may not inform his late coming unless instructed. Assumption I and II are implicit Assumptions II and III are implicit Assumptions I and III are implicit Only Assumption III is implicit 5 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.Statement The professor announced in the class that the next periodical examination will be held on 15th of the next month.AssumptionsI. All the students may appear in the examinationII. The college will remain open on 15th of the next monthIII. The students can study till 15th of the next month to pass the examination. Assumption I and II are implicit Assumptions II and III are implicit Assumptions I and III are implicit Only Assumption III is implicit 6 / 50 In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.Statement The company has recently announced a series of incentives to the employees who are punctual and sincere.AssumptionsI. Those who are not punctual at present may get motivated by the announcement.II. The productivity of the company may increase.III. The profit earned by the company may be more than the amount to be spent for the incentive programs. Assumptions I and II are implicit None is implicit Assumptions II and III are implicit All are implicit 7 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Statement should college be given the status of a university in India?ArgumentsI. Yes, colleges are in a better position to assess the students performance and therefore the degrees will be more validII. No, it is utopism to think that there will not be nepotism and corruption in awarding degrees by colleges. If only Argument I is strong If only Argument II is strong If neither Argument I nor II is strong If both Argument I and II are strong 8 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Statement Should all refugees, who make unauthorized entry into a country, be forced to go back to their homeland?ArgumentsI. Yes, they make their colonies and occupy a lot of land.II. No, they leave their homes because of hunger or some terror and on If only Argument I is strong If only Argument II is strong If neither Argument I nor II is strong If both Argument I and II are strong 9 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.Statement Should fashionable dresses be banned?ArgumentsI. Yes, fashions keep changing and hence consumption of clothes increases.II. No, fashionable clothes are a person’s self expression and therefore his/her fundamental right. If only Argument I is strong If only Argument II is strong If neither Argument I nor II is strong If both Argument I and II are strong 10 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.Statement Should the income generated out of agriculture activities be taxed?ArgumentsI. No, farmers are otherwise suffering from natural calamities and low yield coupled with low procurement price and their income should not be taxed.II. Yes, the majority of the population is dependent on agriculture and hence their income should be taxed to argument the resources.III. Yes, many big farmers earn much more than the majority of the service earners and they should be taxed to remove the disparity. Argument I is strong Argument I and II are strong Argument II and III are strong All are strong 11 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.Statement Should “literacy” be the minimum criterion for becoming a voter in India?ArgumentsI. No, mere literacy is no guarantee of political maturity of an individual.II. Yes, illiterate people are less likely to make politically wiser decisions of voting for a right candidate or party.III. No, voting is the constitutional right of every citizen. Argument I and II are strong Argument III is strong Argument II and III are strong All are strong 12 / 50 The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.Statement Should all the indirect taxes in India be combined into a single tax on all commodities?ArgumentsI. Yes, this will considerably simplify the tax collection mechanism and the cost of collecting tax will also reduce.II. Yes, the manufacturers and traders will be benefited by this which is turn will boost tax collection.III. No, no other country has adopted such a system. None is strong Argument I and II are strong Argument II is strong Argument II and III are strong 13 / 50 Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.Statements Latha is a beautiful and intelligent girl. She is very good.ConclusionsI. All beautiful girls are intelligent.II. Beauty and Intelligence are the essential factors of goodness. If only conclusion I follows If only conclusion II follows If neither conclusion I nor II follow If both conclusions I and II follow 14 / 50 Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.Statements All skaters are good swimmers. All good swimmers are runners.ConclusionsI. Some runners are skaters.II. Some skaters are good swimmers. If only conclusion I follows If only conclusion II follows If neither conclusion I nor II follow If both conclusions I and II follow 15 / 50 Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.Statement Some gears are wheels. All wheels are brakesConclusionsI. No brakes is gearII. Some gears are brakes If only conclusion I follows If only conclusion II follows If neither conclusion I nor II follow If both conclusions I and II follow 16 / 50 The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct. Jackals live in forests cities are in forests, therefore jackals live in cities. Some tables are grass. All stools are grass, therefore all tables are stools. Cups play chess. Chess is a difficult game. Therefore all tables are stools. Ritu is a girl. All girls are timid. Therefore All timid are Ritu. 17 / 50 The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct. All A’s are B’s. All B’s are C’s. Therefore all C’s are A’s. Some A’s are B’s. All B’s are C’s. Therefore some A’s are C’s. Some A’s and some B’s are C’s. Some C’s are both A’s and B’s. Therefore some A’s are B’s. All A’s are B’s. Some C’s are A’s. Therefore, some C’s are not B’s. 18 / 50 The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct. All fish can fly. Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore some naughty can fly. Some fish are birds. All birds are naughty. Therefore all fish are naughty. All B’s are A’s. All C’s are B’s. Therefore all A’s are C’s. All C’s are A’s. Some B’s are C’s. Therefore all B’s are A’s. 19 / 50 Find the missing term in the following series.11,23,48,99,………….,409 202 212 102 216 20 / 50 Find the number in the given series, which is incorrect?1,2,4,8,16,32,64,96 16 96 64 32 21 / 50 In the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.A, B, D, G, ? J K L M 22 / 50 In the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.CE, GI, KM, OQ, ? ST TP SU SQ 23 / 50 Complete the given series.AZ, GT, MN,………, YB KF RX SH TS 24 / 50 If TAP is coded as SZO, then how will be FREEZE coded? EQDFYG ESDFYF GQFDYF EQDDYD 25 / 50 In the question, either numerical code values are assigned to word or alphabetic code letters are assigned to the numbers. The students are required to analyse the code as per the directions given.If in certain language A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, C is coded as 3 and so on, how is BIDDIC coded in that? 294493 284563 375582 394492 26 / 50 In the question, some particular objects are assigned codes. Then, a question is asked that is to be answered in the code languageIf ‘cook’ is called ‘butler’, ‘butler’ is called ‘manager’, ‘manager’ is called ‘teacher’, ‘teacher’ is called ‘ clerk’ and ‘clerk; is called ‘principal’, who will teach in the class? Clerk Butler Manager Teacher 27 / 50 In this question, four complete messages are given in the coded language and the code for a particular word is asked. To analyze such codes, any two messages bearing a common word are picked up. The common code word will mean that word. Proceeding similarly by picking up all possible combinations of two, the entire message can be analyzed.If ‘tee see pee’ means Drink fruit juice’, ‘see kee lee’ means ‘ Juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’? see kee lee pee 28 / 50 In a certain code, SIKKIM is written as THLJJL. How is TRAINING written in that code? SQBHOHOH UQBHOHOF UQBJOHHO UQBJOHOH 29 / 50 In a certain code, BRAIN is written as ⊕ % ÷ # x and TIER is written as $#+%.How is RENT written in that code? %x#$ %#x$ %+x$ +x%$ 30 / 50 Kind of RelationshipPart to Whole Soldier : Regiment Patch : Thread Hand : Clock Struggle : Wrestle 31 / 50 Kind of RelationshipAntonym Angel : Horns North : Climate Boldness : Victory Suavity : Bluntness 32 / 50 Number AnalogyWhich set of numbers is like the given set (64,32,8)? (125,25,5) (81,27,3) (56,28,7) (112,56,16) 33 / 50 Alphabet AnalogyK c a C : C a c K : : X g m F : ? E m g F E m g x F m g X G m e F 34 / 50 In question three terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the term that does not belong to that group. Pen Pencil Ball Pen Eraser 35 / 50 In the question three terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the term that does not belong to that group. He-goat He-buffalo Cow Bull 36 / 50 In the question four groups of letters are given, three of them are alike in some way while one is different. Choose the odd one. AB CD EF GI 37 / 50 In the question four groups of letters are given, three of them are alike in some way while one is different. Choose the odd one. VX FG PR DF 38 / 50 In the question, four numbers are given. Out of these three are alike in a certain way but one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest three. 1 9 48 16 39 / 50 In the question, four numbers are given. Out of these three are alike in a certain way but one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest three. (25,36) (9,64) (100,121) (144, 169) 40 / 50 If ‘South-East’ becomes ‘East’, ‘North-West’ becomes ‘West’, ‘South-West’ becomes ‘South’ and so on, what will be ‘North’ ? East North-West South North-West 41 / 50 Of the five villages P,Q,R,S and T situated close to each other, P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P and T is to North of Q and S is to the East of T. Then, R is in which direction with respect to S ? North-West South-East South-West Data inadequate 42 / 50 If A faces North-East and moves 10 m forwards, turn left and move 7.5 m, then A is North of his initial position South of his initial position East of his initial position 12 m from his initial position 43 / 50 Vikash rode his bicycle Northwards, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself exactly 1 Km West of his starting point. How far did he ride Northwards initially? 1 km 3 km 5 km 2 km 44 / 50 At what time between 9 and 10 O’clock will the hands of a clock be together? 35 min past 9 49 1/11 min past 9 55 2/11 min past 9 45 1/11 min past 9 45 / 50 The priest told the devotee, “ The temple bell is rung at regular interval of 45 min. The last bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7:45 am. “At what time did the priest give this information to the devotee 7:40 am 7:05 am 7:00 am 6:55 am 46 / 50 Seema remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after 8th but before 13th of December. Her sister Nirmala remembers that their father’s birthday was definitely after 9th but before 14th of December. On which date of December was their father’s birthday. 10th 11th 12th Data inadequate 47 / 50 Pointing towards a girl Raj said, “she is the daughter of my mother’s daughter”. Then, how is a girl related to Raj ? Daughter Uncle Niece Nephew 48 / 50 Pointing towards a man, another man said “ He is the son of my father’s sister”. Then, what is the relation between them ? Father-Son Brother Cousin Uncle-Nephew 49 / 50 Pointing to a photo Nirmal said, “ She is the daughter of only son of my grandfather”. How is the girl related to Nirmal? Sister Cousin Daughter Granddaughter 50 / 50 If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day of that year Monday Friday Saturday Sunday Your score is 0% Restart 0% Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – General Knowledge 1 / 145 Which one among the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ? Pravara-Godavari valley was the nuclear zone of Jorwe culture. The main sites of Jorwe culture are Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa. At daimabad one gets archaeological evidence of symbolic burial. Practically all Jorwe settlements in the Northern Deccan were suddenly deserted. 2 / 145 Statement I Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirgranthas.Statement II The sect was found 200 years earlier by Parsva. Both the statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. Statement I is false, but statement II is true. 3 / 145 Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rigveda?1. Rigvedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism.2. There are striking similarities between the Rigvedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the houses of the priest who was called yajaman.4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds, those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists.Select the correct answer using the codes given below. Only 3 1 and 2 All of these 1, 2 and 4 4 / 145 According to the Dharmashastras, ‘Anuloma’ is a marriage between a higher cast man and a lower caste woman lower caste man and higher cast woman man and woman of the same gotra man and woman of the same caste 5 / 145 Consider the following statements1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock-cut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas. Shaivas and Jainas limited these in later centuries.2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas, and Jainas excavated temples at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 6 / 145 Which one among the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society? Belief in karma and Rebirth Belief in Universal brotherhood and humanity Belief in Vedantic Philosophy Belief in the eradication of untouchability 7 / 145 The Silk Routes were important in ancient times because they Facilitated the exchange of goods and ideas between China and the Roman empire allowed gold and silver mined in china to be traded for European furs and wool cloth. provided a conduit for trade in silk, porcelain and costly gems between China and Japan Provided trade links between the people of Siberia and the people living on islands in the Bering sea 8 / 145 What was the main cause for the rise of large states during and after the 6th century BC? Widespread use of iron in parts of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar The tribal society gave way to a more settled life There was great increase of trade and commerce None of the above 9 / 145 The highly polished monolithic Ashokan pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of Chunar near Mirzapur Lauriya in Nandangarh Sarnath near Varanasi Udayagiri near Bhubaneswar 10 / 145 The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of Chunar near Mirzapur Lauriya in Nandangarh Sarnath near Varanasi Udayagiri near Bhubaneswar 11 / 145 The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at the time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. The road and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.2. As regards punishment for offenses, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.Select the correct answer using the codes given below Only 1 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of these 12 / 145 Statement I There was a great exodus of Jaina monks under the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following severe famine in the Ganga Valley towards the end of Chandragupta’s reign.Statement II Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order as a monk. Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false Statement I is false, but Statement II is true 13 / 145 Which one of the following pairs of Kings of ancient and medieval periods of history and the works authored by them is correctly matched ? Krishnadevaraya – Samaranganasutradhra Mahendravarman – Mattavilasaprahasana Bhojadeva – Manasallasa Someswara – Amuktamalyada 14 / 145 Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that1. They reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rules.2. The invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth.3. They provided fresh geographical knowledge.4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib or Vice Regent of the empire.Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 3 1, 2 and 4 2 and 4 All of these 15 / 145 With references to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?1. Meditation and control of breath.2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place.3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience.Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 2 and 3 Only 3 All of these 16 / 145 What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis? Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi Saints for seeking barket (spiritual grace) Reciting divine name Offering free kitchens run on futuh (unasked for charity) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts) 17 / 145 When the Portuguese sailed around the cape of good hope and entered the Indian Ocean in the late 15th century, they found a region defended and patrolled by fleets of the Chinese navy a region where sea trade had not yet developed numerous poorts under the control of merchants from Genoa a network of long distance trade routes dominated by Muslim merchants 18 / 145 Which of the following did not constitute part of the army reforms of Sher Shah? Keeping a large army at the centre Introduction of a swiftly moving artillery Cash payment to soldiers Introduction of the practice of branding horses 19 / 145 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?1. It opposed idolatry2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.Select the correct answer using the codes given below Only 1 1 and 2 Only 3 All of these 20 / 145 What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian States.2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India.Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 Only 2 1 and 3 1, 2 and 3 21 / 145 The Jury Act of 1827 was opposed by many Indians. One of the grounds for opposing it was that it denied both to the Hindus and Mohammedans, the honour of a seat on the Grand Jury. Which among the following was known for his opposition to the Jury Act ? Gopal Krishna Gokhale Lord Sinha Sir Syed Ahmad Khan Raja Rammohan Roy 22 / 145 The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to Solve the problem of minorities in India Give effect to the Independence Bill delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan enquire into the riots in East Bengal 23 / 145 Consider the following statements about ‘Jataka stories’1. The Jatakas include the legends or stories of the various incarnations of Lord Buddha before he attained enlightenment.2. These intrusive stories have various beasts and birds as characters.Select the correct answers using the codes given below Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 24 / 145 A black hole is a Contracted star with intense gravitational pull Star with very low surface temperature Star with no atmosphere Pulsating star 25 / 145 The correct sequence of the following planets in terms of gravity, in the descending order is Saturn, Earth, Neptune, Uranus Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Earth Uranus, Earth, Saturn, Neptune Earth, Uranus, Neptune, Saturns 26 / 145 Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass? Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia 27 / 145 Which parts of the Earth’s surface experience least variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year? Poles Equatorial regions Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn Arctic and Antarctic circles 28 / 145 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the climatic regions while going from Zaire to the Netherlands ?1. Equatorial Climate2. Mediterranean climate3. Hot desert climate4. West European climate 1, 3, 2, 4 1, 4, 2, 3 2, 3, 4, 1 3, 2, 1, 4 29 / 145 Humid climate, ready market and availability of cheap and skilled labour are the conditions conducive for the production of cotton cloth. Which of the following states of India will have the highest cotton cloth production ? Gujarat Karnataka Maharashtra Punjab 30 / 145 Earthquakes occur due to frequent occurrence of cyclones movement of plates of Earth, which float on the hot volcanic mantle below the earth’s surface too much pressure on land underground nuclear explosions 31 / 145 The ‘ring of fire’1. Is associated with earthquakes.2. Is associated with volcanoes.3. Goes round the Pacific ocean4. Is associated with forest fires.Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 2 and 4 All of these 32 / 145 Which one among the following is a cold ocean current? Canary Current Brazil Current Gulf Stream Kuroshio Current 33 / 145 Consider the following Indian states1. Chhattisgarh2. Telangana3. Andhra Pradesh4. Uttarakhand5. Tamil NaduWhich among the states given above are the largest and smallest respectively (in terms of geographical area)? 3 and 4 3 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 5 34 / 145 Consider the following mountain ranges1. Ladakh range2. Karakoram3. Great Himalayas4. Zanskar rangeWhich is the correct sequence of these from South to North ? 3, 4, 1, 2 3, 1, 4, 2 4, 2, 3, 1 4, 3, 2, 1 35 / 145 The Narmada river flows to the West, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the East. Why?1. It occupies a linear rift valley.2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras3. The land slopes to the West from Central IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below Only 1 2 and 3 1 and 3 None of these 36 / 145 The Tibetan river ‘Tsangpo’ enters India through the state of Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Assam Nagaland 37 / 145 Which of the following lakes in India has the highest water salinity ? Dal Chilka Wular Sambhar 38 / 145 Which one of the following states has the largest forest area to its total land area? Mizoram Arunachal Pradesh Sikkim Jammu and Kashmir 39 / 145 Which one among the following types of forest exhibits the highest biodiversity? Dry deciduous forest Tropical rainforest Moist deciduous forest Mangrove forest 40 / 145 Humid Climate, ready market, and availability of cheap and skilled labor are the conditions conducive for the production of cotton cloth. Which is the production of cotton cloth? Which of the following states of India will have the highest cotton cloth production? Gujarat Karnataka Maharashtra Punjab 41 / 145 Consider the following statements1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana Beds.2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 2 and 3 None of the above 42 / 145 Koyali is hydroelectric plant in Assam thermal electric plant in Maharashtra oil refinery in Gujarat biogas plant in Andhra Pradesh 43 / 145 The largest coal reserves of India are found in Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Madhya Pradesh Odisha 44 / 145 Which one is not located on National Highway 2 (NH 2)? Aurangabad Sasaram Mohania Patna 45 / 145 Which one among the following is a correct sequence of Indian ports from North to South ? Haldia, Kandia, Paradeep, Kochi Kandla, Haldia, Paradeep, Kochi Kandla, Haldia, Kochi, Paradeep Kochi, Kandia, Haldia, Paradeep 46 / 145 A keystone species has a disproportionately large impact on an ecosystem typically reduces overall diversity of an ecosystem is typically an herbivore is an example of amensalism 47 / 145 A food chain consists of producers, consumers, decomposers producer, carnivores, decomposers primary producers, herbivores, carnivores producers, primary, consumers, carnivores 48 / 145 Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution1. In addition to the structure of the government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy.2. Through amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the fundamental duties of citizens along with their rights.Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 49 / 145 Consider the following statements1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice.2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical.Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 50 / 145 The Preamble of our Constitution is a part of the Constitution contains the spirit of the Constitution is a limitation upon the granted power None of the above 51 / 145 Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution? Presidential Government Parliamentary Government Federal Government Independence of Judiciary 52 / 145 Which schedule of the constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in several states ? Third Fifth Seventh Ninth 53 / 145 Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the constitution of India) is a fundamental Right classifiable under the Right to Freedom of Religion the Right against Exploitation the Cultural and Educational Rights the Right to Equality 54 / 145 The idea of including the emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the Constitution of Canada Constitution of Ireland Constitution of the USA Weimar Constitution of Germany 55 / 145 Under which article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated in any state in India? 356 352 360 370 56 / 145 The President of India is elected by a Proportional Representative System by a single transferable vote. This implies that elected MPs and MLAs of states have different number of votes all MPs and MLAs of states have one vote each all MPs and MLAs of states have equal number of votes MPs of the Lok Sabha have equal number of votes 57 / 145 The authorization from the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from the President of India the Parliament of India the Prime Minister of India the Union Finance Minister 58 / 145 Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker? KVK Sundaram GS Dhillon Baliram Bhagat Hukam Singh 59 / 145 The Bombay High Court does not have a bench, at which one of the following places? Nagpur Panaji Pune Aurangabad 60 / 145 How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one state ( Union Territories not included)? 2 3 4 5 61 / 145 With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following states has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the stare? Assam Manipur Nagaland Andhra Pradesh 62 / 145 The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to Consolidated Fund of the State Consolidated Fund of India Contingency Fund of India Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ in equal proportion 63 / 145 Corporation Tax is levied by the union and collected and appropriated by the states. is levied by the union and belongs to its exclusively is levied and appropriated by the states is levied by the union and shared by the union and the states 64 / 145 According to the provisions of the constitution of India, who inquires into all doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of Vice-President of India ? The President of India The Supreme Court of India The Election Commission of India The Attorney General of India 65 / 145 Which one among the following is not a constitutional body in India ? Comptroller and Auditor General National Commission binguistic Minorities National Commission for Scheduled Castes National Human Rights Commission 66 / 145 Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? 42nd 44th 73rd 86th 67 / 145 Where was the first municipal corporation in India set up Mumbai Kolkata Delhi Chennai 68 / 145 At present, the National Commission on population is under Planning Commission Ministry of Human Resource Development Cabinet Secretariat Ministry of Health 69 / 145 The 10th Schedule added to the Constitution of India by the 52nd Amendment related to anti-defection law land reforms panchayati raj languages 70 / 145 Economic survey is published by Ministry of Finance Planning Commission Government of India Indian Statistical Institute 71 / 145 Professor PC Mahalanobis’s name is associated with the First Five Year Plan Second Five Year Plan Third Five Year Plan Fourth Five Year Plan 72 / 145 Which one of the following is not included in the NAtional Food Security Mission ? Oilseeds Wheat Rice Pulses 73 / 145 To obtain full benefits of the demographic dividend, what should India do? Promoting skill development Introducing more social security schemes Reducing infant mortality rate Privatization of higher education 74 / 145 Broad money in India is M1 M2 M3 M4 75 / 145 When was the decimal system of currency introduced in India? 1948 1950 1954 1957 76 / 145 ‘Repo Rates’ is the rate at which the RBI lends to state Governments the International Aid Agencies lend to RBI the RBI lends to Banks the banks lend to RBI 77 / 145 Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India.This portion is called. statutory liquidity ratio cash reserve ratio bank deposit reverse repo 78 / 145 With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?1. Defense expenditure2. Interest payments3. Salaries and pensions4. SubsidiesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below Only 1 2 and 3 1,2,3 and 4 None of these 79 / 145 Fiscal deficit in the budget means revenue deficit plus the net borrowings of the Government budgetary deficit plus the net borrowings of the Government capital deficit plus revenue deficit primary deficit minus capital deficit 80 / 145 Which of the following factors determine the nature and size of the industry?1. Business turnover2. Capital investment3. Labour force4. Power consumptionSelect the correct answer using the codes given below 1,2 and 4 1,3 and 4 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 81 / 145 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Hindalco Industries : Novelis Tata Steel : Corus Group Jet Airways : Air Sahara Kingfisher Airlines : MDLR Airlines 82 / 145 Consider the following statements1. The United Nations Human released on 14 December 20152. In HDI Report, 2015 India has been placed at 130th position.3. In HDI Report, 2015 India has been placed at 140th position.Which of the statements is/are correct. 1 and 2 Only 2 2 and 3 Only 1 83 / 145 The Bretton Woods conference led to the establishment of1. IMF2. IBRD3. United Nations4. WTO 1 and 2 1,2 and 3 1 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4 84 / 145 World Bank is a body of non-official, generous individuals that controls world wide foreign exchange operations of major banks operating in different countries that gives aid to developing countries 85 / 145 Consider the following statements1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maizeWhich of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 86 / 145 In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because of the increase in vapor pressure increases the specific heat decreases the specific heat decreases the boiling point increases the boiling point 87 / 145 The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to Slow down the speed of neutrons Increase the speed of neutrons Cool down the reactor Stop the nuclear reaction 88 / 145 A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of Linear momentum Angular momentum Energy Mass 89 / 145 The line softly force of the uniform magnetic field Must be convergent Must be divergent Must be parallel to each other Intersect 90 / 145 The principle of cleaning by soap is Surface tension Floatation Viscosity Elasticity 91 / 145 Contact lenses are made from Polyvinyl chloride Polystyrene Lucite Teflon 92 / 145 The loudness of sound is related to It’s frequency It’s amplitude It’s speed It’s pitch 93 / 145 The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by Convection Conduction Radiation Both Convection and Conduction 94 / 145 The Celsius temperature is a/an Relative temperature Absolute temperature Specific temperature Approximate temperature 95 / 145 Light waves projected on oil surface shoe seven colours die to the phenomenon of Polarisation Refraction Reflection Interference 96 / 145 Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink? Fountain pen Ballpoint pen Gel pen Both Ballpoint and Gel pens 97 / 145 Which of the following radiations has the highest energy per quantum? 320-400 nm 200-280 nm 280-320 nm 400-600 nm 98 / 145 For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum ‘p’ and displacement ‘q’ would come out as A straight line A parabola A circle An ellipse 99 / 145 The densities of three liquids are D, 2D, and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three are mixed? 6D 1.4D 2D 3D 100 / 145 Which one among the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? Steel> Wood> Water Steel>Water> Wood Water> Steel>Wood Water>Wood>Steal 101 / 145 The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is about 25cm 1m 2.5min 2.5cm 102 / 145 The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by John Dalton Rutherford JJ Thomson Niels Bohr 103 / 145 Electricity is produced through dry cell from Chemical energy Thermal energy Mechanical energy Nuclear energy 104 / 145 Cosmic rays Are charged particles Are uncharged particles Can be charged as well as uncharged None of the above 105 / 145 A fan produces a feeling of comfort during the hot weather, because Our body radiates more heat in air Fan supplied cool air Conductivity of air increases Our perspiration evaporates rapidly 106 / 145 An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by Visible light X-rays Sound Gamma rays 107 / 145 If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, helium and nitrogen gases respectively and left in air, which balloon reaches to the highest distance from the Earth ? Balloon A Balloon B Balloon C Balloon D 108 / 145 Which one among the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage ? Ethanol Thioethanol Methane Chloroform 109 / 145 Choose the correct statement(s) about Akash missile It is indigenously – built surface – to – land Akash missile It was launched from complex-3 of the Integrated Test Range (ITR) at Sriharikota It is developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India under the Integrated Guided-missile Development Programme (IGMDP) All of these 110 / 145 Choose the correct statement(s): Nag is a third generation fire-and-forget anti-tank missile which can be fired in both night and day time It has a length of 101.9m length. It can be fired against only fixed targets. The missiles have land, water-launched and man portable (weighing 14 kg) versions. 111 / 145 One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately 1 tonne of high grade coal 4.5 tonne of high grade coal 10 tonne of high grade coal 100 tonne of high grade coal 112 / 145 Which of the following particles is the lightest ? Nucleus Electron Proton Meson 113 / 145 Bt seed is associated with rice wheat cotton oilseed 114 / 145 Consider the following statements1. Stem cells have the ability to develop into any type of cell.2. Tissue plasminogen activator is used for dissolving blood clots.3. Dextran is a plasma expander used in blood transfusion.Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Only 3 1, 2 and 3 115 / 145 Consider the following statements1. Supercomputer Saga-220 is capable of performing at the speed above 200 TFIOPS.2. India has only 2 supercomputer systems on the Top 500 supercomputer list of the world.Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 116 / 145 Which one of the following countries has developed the Tianhe-1A, one of the world’s fastest supercomputers? Japan China South Korea Chinese Taipei 117 / 145 The first National Park, established in India is Namdapha National Park Corbett National Park Dudhwa National Park Guindy National Park 118 / 145 The first telegraph line in India was laid between Calcutta and Delhi Calcutta and Bombay Calcutta and Agra Delhi and Bombay 119 / 145 Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Raja Rao : Telugu Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati 120 / 145 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?1. Arundhati Roy : The God of Small Things2. Kiran Desai : The Inheritance of Loss3. Jhumpa Lahiri : The Namesake 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 121 / 145 NJAC is a commission associated with the appointment of Judges in India NJAC stand for National Judicial Appointment Commission National Judicial Appointment Committee National Judicial Appointment Committee None of the above 122 / 145 LASER stands for Long Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation Locally Amplified Stimulated Emission of Radiation Light Amplification by Emission of Radiation 123 / 145 Some atheists, skeptics and non-believers called to celebrate ‘25th December’ as Newtonmas Day instead of observing ‘Christmas Day’. The reason they propose that both Isacc Newton and Jesus Christ were great Isaac Newton was born on 25th December ‘Skeptic Society’ was founded on 25th December Issac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity 124 / 145 Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched? World Health Day : 7th April Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Day (1919) : 13th April World Heritage Day : 18th April National Defence Day : 5th March 125 / 145 The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to the 100 years of Nobel Prize-winning by Madam Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry our Future.2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science.Select the correct answer using the codes given below. Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 126 / 145 Consider the following statements1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people.2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 127 / 145 The Olympic Games in 2016 will be held in London America Holland Brazil 128 / 145 The term ‘Butterfly stroke’ is related with swimming boxing wrestling kabaddi 129 / 145 The ‘Red Data Books’ Published by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCNNR) contain lists of1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.2. Threatened plant and animal species3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 3 Only 2 2 and 3 Only 3 130 / 145 The headquarters of, which one of the following is located in Paris ? NATO OECD European Union UNIDO 131 / 145 Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one of the following fields ? Physics Medical Science Environmental Science History 132 / 145 Who is the proponent and propagandist of the ‘Art of Living’ ? Maharishi Mahesh Yogi Sri Ravi Shankar Swami Chinmayananda Bhagwan Rajneesh 133 / 145 Human Resource Development Minister Smriti Irani launched the Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) scheme at which place ? IIT – Kanpur IIT – Gandhinagar IIT – Delhi IIT – Kharagpur 134 / 145 President Pranab Mukherjee in December 2015 has given assent to the contentious Labour Laws Bill of which state has provisions to ban strikes in public utility service for up to one year ? Maharashtra Gujarat Haryana Punjab 135 / 145 As per the latest report released by credit rating agency Brickwork Ratings, which state is the biggest economy within India in terms of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) Maharashtra Tamil Nadu Uttar Pradesh Gujarat 136 / 145 The Union government approved a post facto agreement to expand bilateral cooperation in the field of solar energy and also approved another agreement to roll out the ‘Make in India’ campaign for the capital goods sector with which country ? France Japan Russia Germany 137 / 145 Which state government has launched the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 with an aim to benefit more than one third of the state’s population ? Maharashtra Goa Karnataka Kerala 138 / 145 Which state assembly passed the Janlokpal Bill that provides for an ombudsman with powers to act against any government functionary including those of the centre ? Odisha Delhi Puducherry None of the above 139 / 145 Which state has become the first state in India to start the Rotavirus vaccination project ? Punjab Haryana Himachal Pradesh Uttarakhand 140 / 145 Choose the correct statements regarding Jason-3 Mission: This was the fourth mission in US-European series of satellite missions. The satellite will also help the USA in enhancing forecasting of marine navigation and hurricane forecasting. In the year 2001, the Jason-1 and in missions were launched. All of the above 141 / 145 Prime Minister Narendra Modi released commemorative coin as part of the 125th birthday anniversary year celebrations of Dr.BR Ambedkar. What are the denominations? Rs.10 Rs.100 and Rs.25 Both of the above None of the above 142 / 145 Which state has become India’s first state to allow the members of state LEgislature to raise online questions in an effort to move towards complete digitisation of the process. The step is aimed at bringing the paperwork to minimum? Tamil Nadu Kerala Maharashtra Telangana 143 / 145 The Union Cabinet chaired by the prime minister Narendra Modi has given its approval to carry out official amendments in ‘The National Waterways Bill, 2015’ on the recommendations of whom? Parliamentary standing committee State Governments Both of the above None of the above 144 / 145 Which currency was anointed as one of the worlds elite currencies in December 2015 by International Monetary Fund (IMF) Yen Rupee Taka Renminbi 145 / 145 In December, 2015, Saudi Arabia announced how many States Islamic military alliance against terrorism ? 32 34 36 38 Your score is 0% Restart
