Colleges Accepting JEE (Mains) Score 2020 and Fee Details

Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam (Phase 1 Question Paper with Answers)

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Comprehensive English

1 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

Of the two answers, this is definitely better

2 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The burglars were caught just as they were about to escape from the jail

3 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

In a hour’s time when I had finished the work, I got up and slipped out unnoticed

4 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

He should mix his authority with little of courtesy and common sense

5 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The trees in a forest must be properly counted and numbered and proper entries be made in the register

6 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The success of our efforts depend upon the number of people who actually use the new method

7 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

More leisure as well as abundance of goods are attainable through automation 

8 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

He had taken off his shirt and threw it on the floor before entering the house

9 / 20

 

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The boys worked slowly for they knew that as soon as they finish one exercise the teacher would tell them to do the next

 

10 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The gentleman together with his wife and daughter were drowned 

11 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The issue are very complex and the problem is that they are bound to be obscured by these hypocritical politicians

12 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

An earthquake is a natural phenomena nobody can check it, be sure.

13 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

All the evidence against him were rejected by the High Court.

14 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The doctor declared that the patient’s intestine was not working properly and so he needed medical treatment for a long time

15 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

Children are prone to making mischiefs if they have nothing to do

16 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

This is the best which we can do in the present circumstances

17 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

The articles published in this magazine are better than that magazine 

18 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

There is none who can help you in this crucial moment of your career

19 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

Anyone of the students is not allowed to keep their books in the staff room 

20 / 20

Find out the part which has an error in the following sentences.

If you are good to people you will be treated well by themselves 

Your score is

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Basic Maths

1 / 20

The difference between the largest 4 digit number and the smallest 3 digit number is

2 / 20

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9 ?

3 / 20

In a division problem, the division is 4 times the quotient and 3 times the remainder. If the remainder is 4, the dividend is 

4 / 20

Which of the least numbers should be added at 1000 to make it exactly divisible by 45?

5 / 20

The sum of odd numbers from 10 to 60 is

6 / 20

353.5+2.32+43.23 is equal to

7 / 20

4.3 x 0.13 is equal to

8 / 20

Divide 0.81 by 9 is equal to

9 / 20

Divide 0.42 by 0.007 is equal to

10 / 20

Find the HCF of 15.5 and 0.90

11 / 20

7865-4128+372 = ? + 2014

12 / 20

19 x 11 – 12 + 444 ÷ 37 = ? – 110

13 / 20

1.43 x 1.43 + 0.43 x 0.43 – 0.86 x 1.43 = ?

14 / 20

Two third of 10% of 60% of A is 32. Find the value of A.

15 / 20

The number of seats in the cinema hall has increased by 25%. The cost of a ticket is also increased by 10%. The overall percentage increase in the revenue is

16 / 20

In an examination, 20% of the total number of students failed in History, 15% of total number of students failed in Hindi and 5% of the total number of students failed in both. The percentage of students who passed in both the subjects is

17 / 20

In order to pass in an examination, a student is required to get 780 marks out of the aggregate marks. Sonu got 728 marks and was declared failed by 5%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the examination?

18 / 20

If in an examination, the marks obtained by Preeti is 20% less than that of Vandana, then marks obtained by Vandana is how much percent more than marks obtained by Preeti?

19 / 20

If the price of milk falls down by 20%, by how much percent must a householder increase its consumption, so as not to decrease his expenditure on this item?

20 / 20

60% of a number is 24 less than 3/4th of that number. Find the number.

Your score is

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – Mental Ability

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In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement Vitamin E tablets improve circulation, keep your complexion in a glowing condition.
Assumptions
I. People like a glowing complexion
II. Complexion becomes dull in the absence of circulation

2 / 50

In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement If you have any problems, bring them to me.
Assumptions
I. You have some problems.
II. I can solve any problem.

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In each question below is given a statement followed by two Assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.

Statement Detergents should be used to clean clothes.
Assumptions
I. While going down, the lift is unable to carry any load.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.

4 / 50

In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement Give this packet to Mr.X at his residence and return immediately. In case you are likely to be late, inform me. Mr.A tells his clerk.
Assumptions
I. The clerk never informs about his late coming.
II. The clerk may not obey Mr.A’s instructions.
III. The clerk may not inform his late coming unless instructed.

5 / 50

In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement The professor announced in the class that the next periodical examination will be held on 15th of the next month.
Assumptions
I. All the students may appear in the examination
II. The college will remain open on 15th of the next month
III. The students can study till 15th of the next month to pass the examination.

6 / 50

In each question below is given a statement followed by three Assumptions I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

Statement The company has recently announced a series of incentives to the employees who are punctual and sincere.
Assumptions
I. Those who are not punctual at present may get motivated by the announcement.
II. The productivity of the company may increase.
III. The profit earned by the company may be more than the amount to be spent for the incentive programs.

7 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement should college be given the status of a university in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, colleges are in a better position to assess the students performance and therefore the degrees will be more valid
II. No, it is utopism to think that there will not be nepotism and corruption in awarding degrees by colleges.

8 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement Should all refugees, who make unauthorized entry into a country, be forced to go back to their homeland?
Arguments
I. Yes, they make their colonies and occupy a lot of land.
II. No, they leave their homes because of hunger or some terror and on

9 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement followed by two Arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement Should fashionable dresses be banned?
Arguments
I. Yes, fashions keep changing and hence consumption of clothes increases.
II. No, fashionable clothes are a person’s self expression and therefore his/her fundamental right.

10 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.

Statement Should the income generated out of agriculture activities be taxed?
Arguments
I. No, farmers are otherwise suffering from natural calamities and low yield coupled with low procurement price and their income should not be taxed.
II. Yes, the majority of the population is dependent on agriculture and hence their income should be taxed to argument the resources.
III. Yes, many big farmers earn much more than the majority of the service earners and they should be taxed to remove the disparity.

11 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.

Statement Should “literacy” be the minimum criterion for becoming a voter in India?
Arguments
I. No, mere literacy is no guarantee of political maturity of an individual.
II. Yes, illiterate people are less likely to make politically wiser decisions of voting for a right candidate or party.
III. No, voting is the constitutional right of every citizen.

12 / 50

The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three-argument (s) and which is/are ‘weak’ argument (s) and accordingly choose your answer from alternatives given below each question.

Statement Should all the indirect taxes in India be combined into a single tax on all commodities?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will considerably simplify the tax collection mechanism and the cost of collecting tax will also reduce.
II. Yes, the manufacturers and traders will be benefited by this which is turn will boost tax collection.
III. No, no other country has adopted such a system.

13 / 50

Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.

Statements Latha is a beautiful and intelligent girl. She is very good.
Conclusions
I. All beautiful girls are intelligent.
II. Beauty and Intelligence are the essential factors of goodness.

14 / 50

Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.

Statements  All skaters are good swimmers. All good swimmers are runners.
Conclusions
I. Some runners are skaters.
II. Some skaters are good swimmers.

15 / 50

Two statements are given in the following question followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding known facts.

Statement Some gears are wheels. All wheels are brakes
Conclusions
I. No brakes is gear
II. Some gears are brakes

16 / 50

The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct.

17 / 50

The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct.

18 / 50

The following question has two/three statements. Two/three are logically wrong. Some of which may look factually absurd. Ignore this absurdity and look to the logical corrections. Choose the statement which is correct.

19 / 50

Find the missing term in the following series.
11,23,48,99,………….,409

20 / 50

Find the number in the given series, which is incorrect?
1,2,4,8,16,32,64,96

21 / 50

In the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.

A, B, D, G, ?

22 / 50

In the following questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.

CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?

23 / 50

Complete the given series.

AZ, GT, MN,………, YB

24 / 50

If TAP is coded as SZO, then how will be FREEZE coded?

25 / 50

In the question, either numerical code values are assigned to word or alphabetic code letters are assigned to the numbers. The students are required to analyse the code as per the directions given.

If in certain language A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, C is coded as 3 and so on, how is BIDDIC coded in that?

26 / 50

In the question, some particular objects are assigned codes. Then, a question is asked that is to be answered in the code language

If ‘cook’ is called ‘butler’, ‘butler’ is called ‘manager’, ‘manager’ is called ‘teacher’, ‘teacher’ is called ‘ clerk’ and ‘clerk; is called ‘principal’, who will teach in the class?

27 / 50

In this question, four complete messages are given in the coded language and the code for a particular word is asked. To analyze such codes, any two messages bearing a common word are picked up. The common code word will mean that word. Proceeding similarly by picking up all possible combinations of two, the entire message can be analyzed.

If ‘tee see pee’ means Drink fruit juice’, ‘see kee lee’ means ‘ Juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?

28 / 50

In a certain code, SIKKIM is written as THLJJL. How is TRAINING written in that code?

29 / 50

In a certain code, BRAIN is written as % ÷ # x and TIER is written as $#+%.
How is RENT written in that code?

30 / 50

Kind of Relationship

Part to Whole

31 / 50

Kind of Relationship
Antonym

32 / 50

Number Analogy

Which set of numbers is like the given set (64,32,8)?

33 / 50

Alphabet Analogy

K c a C : C a c K : : X g m F : ?

34 / 50

In question three terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the term that does not belong to that group.

35 / 50

In the question three terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is different than others. Identify the term that does not belong to that group.

36 / 50

In the question four groups of letters are given, three of them are alike in some way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

37 / 50

In the question four groups of letters are given, three of them are alike in some way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

38 / 50

In the question, four numbers are given. Out of these three are alike in a certain way but one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest three.

39 / 50

In the question, four numbers are given. Out of these three are alike in a certain way but one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest three.

40 / 50

If ‘South-East’ becomes ‘East’, ‘North-West’ becomes ‘West’, ‘South-West’ becomes ‘South’ and so on, what will be ‘North’ ?

41 / 50

Of the five villages P,Q,R,S and T situated close to each other, P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P and T is to North of Q and S is to the East of T. Then, R is in which direction with respect to S ?

42 / 50

If A faces North-East and moves 10 m forwards, turn left and move 7.5 m, then A is

43 / 50

Vikash rode his bicycle Northwards, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself exactly 1 Km West of his starting point. How far did he ride Northwards initially?

44 / 50

At what time between 9 and 10 O’clock will the hands of a clock be together?

45 / 50

The priest told the devotee, “ The temple bell is rung at regular interval of 45 min. The last bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7:45 am. “At what time did the priest give this information to the devotee

46 / 50

Seema remembers that her father’s birthday was certainly after 8th but before 13th of December. Her sister Nirmala remembers that their father’s birthday was definitely after 9th but before 14th of December. On which date of December was their father’s birthday.

47 / 50

Pointing towards a girl Raj said, “she is the daughter of my mother’s daughter”. Then, how is a girl related to Raj ?

48 / 50

Pointing towards a man, another man said “ He is the son of my father’s sister”. Then, what is the relation between them ?

49 / 50

Pointing to a photo Nirmal said, “ She is the daughter of only son of my grandfather”. How is the girl related to Nirmal?

50 / 50

If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day of that year

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Virtual Fidato Scholarship Exam – General Knowledge

1 / 145

Which one among the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ?

2 / 145

Statement I Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirgranthas.
Statement II The sect was found 200 years earlier by Parsva.

3 / 145

Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the nature of religion according to the Rigveda?

1. Rigvedic religion can be described as naturalistic polytheism.
2. There are striking similarities between the Rigvedic religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the houses of the priest who was called yajaman.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds, those conducted by the householder and those that required ritual specialists.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

4 / 145

According  to the Dharmashastras, ‘Anuloma’ is a marriage between a

5 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock-cut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas. Shaivas and Jainas limited these in later centuries.
2. The Vaishnavas, Shaivas, and Jainas excavated temples at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

6 / 145

Which one among the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society?

7 / 145

The Silk Routes were important in ancient times because they

8 / 145

What was the main cause for the rise of large states during and after the 6th century BC?

9 / 145

The highly polished monolithic Ashokan pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of

10 / 145

The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of

11 / 145

The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at the time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The road and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offenses, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

12 / 145

Statement I There was a great exodus of Jaina monks under the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following severe famine in the Ganga Valley towards the end of Chandragupta’s reign.
Statement II Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order as a monk.

13 / 145

Which one of the following pairs of Kings of ancient and medieval periods of history and the works authored by them is correctly matched ?

14 / 145

Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that
1. They reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rules.
2. The invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth.
3. They provided fresh geographical knowledge.
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib or Vice Regent of the empire.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

15 / 145

With references to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath.
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place.
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

16 / 145

What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis?

17 / 145

When the Portuguese sailed around the cape of good hope and entered the Indian Ocean in the late 15th century, they found

18 / 145

Which of the following did not constitute part of the army reforms of Sher Shah?

19 / 145

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

20 / 145

What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)

1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian States.
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

21 / 145

The Jury Act of 1827 was opposed by many Indians. One of the grounds for opposing it was that it denied both to the Hindus and Mohammedans, the honour of a seat on the Grand Jury. Which among the following was known for his opposition to the Jury Act ?

22 / 145

The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to 

23 / 145

Consider the following statements about ‘Jataka stories’
1. The Jatakas include the legends or stories of the various incarnations of Lord Buddha before he attained enlightenment.
2. These intrusive stories have various beasts and birds as characters.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below

24 / 145

A black hole is a

25 / 145

The correct sequence of the following planets in terms of gravity, in the descending order is

26 / 145

Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass?

27 / 145

Which parts of the Earth’s surface experience least variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year?

28 / 145

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the climatic regions while going from Zaire to the Netherlands ?
1. Equatorial Climate
2. Mediterranean climate
3. Hot desert climate
4. West European climate

29 / 145

Humid climate, ready market and availability of cheap and skilled labour are the conditions conducive for the production of cotton cloth. Which of the following states of India will have the highest cotton cloth production ?

30 / 145

Earthquakes occur due to

31 / 145

The ‘ring of fire’
1. Is associated with earthquakes.
2. Is associated with volcanoes.
3. Goes round the Pacific ocean
4. Is associated with forest fires.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

32 / 145

Which one among the following is a cold ocean current?

33 / 145

Consider the following Indian states
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Telangana
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand
5. Tamil Nadu

Which among the states given above are the largest and smallest respectively (in terms of geographical area)?

34 / 145

Consider the following mountain ranges
1. Ladakh range
2. Karakoram
3. Great Himalayas
4. Zanskar range

Which is the correct sequence of these from South to North ?

35 / 145

The Narmada river flows to the West, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the East. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras
3. The land slopes to the West from Central India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

36 / 145

The Tibetan river ‘Tsangpo’ enters India through the state of

37 / 145

Which of the following lakes in India has the highest water salinity ?

38 / 145

Which one of the following states has the largest forest area to its total land area?

39 / 145

Which one among the following types of forest exhibits the highest biodiversity?

40 / 145

Humid Climate, ready market, and availability of cheap and skilled labor are the conditions conducive for the production of cotton cloth. Which is the production of cotton cloth? Which of the following states of India will have the highest cotton cloth production?

41 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana Beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

42 / 145

Koyali is

43 / 145

The largest coal reserves of India are found in

44 / 145

Which one is not located on National Highway 2 (NH 2)?

45 / 145

Which one among the following is a correct sequence of Indian ports from North to South ?

46 / 145

A keystone species

47 / 145

A food chain consists of 

48 / 145

Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution
1. In addition to the structure of the government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy.
2. Through amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the fundamental duties of citizens along with their rights.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

49 / 145

Consider the following statements

1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice.
2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

50 / 145

The Preamble of our Constitution

51 / 145

Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

52 / 145

Which schedule of the constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of scheduled areas in several states ?

53 / 145

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the constitution of India) is a fundamental Right classifiable under

54 / 145

The idea of including the emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the

55 / 145

Under which article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated in any state in India?

56 / 145

The President of India is elected by a Proportional Representative System by a single transferable vote. This implies that

57 / 145

The authorization from the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

58 / 145

Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

59 / 145

The Bombay High Court does not have a bench, at which one of the following places?

60 / 145

How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one state ( Union Territories not included)?

61 / 145

With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following states has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the stare?

62 / 145

The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to

63 / 145

Corporation Tax

64 / 145

According to the provisions of the constitution of India, who inquires into all doubts and decides disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of Vice-President of India ?

65 / 145

Which one among the following is not a constitutional body in India ?

66 / 145

Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?

67 / 145

Where was the first municipal corporation in India set up

68 / 145

At present, the National Commission on population is under

69 / 145

The 10th Schedule added to the Constitution of India by the 52nd Amendment related to

70 / 145

Economic survey is published by

71 / 145

Professor PC Mahalanobis’s name is associated with the

72 / 145

Which one of the following is not included in the NAtional Food Security Mission ?

73 / 145

To obtain full benefits of the demographic dividend, what should India do?

74 / 145

Broad money in India is

75 / 145

When was the decimal system of currency introduced in India?

76 / 145

‘Repo Rates’ is the rate at which

77 / 145

Banks in India are required to maintain a portion of their demand and time liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India.

This portion is called.

78 / 145

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
1. Defense expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

79 / 145

Fiscal deficit in the budget means

80 / 145

Which of the following factors determine the nature and size of the industry?
1. Business turnover
2. Capital investment
3. Labour force
4. Power consumption
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

81 / 145

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

82 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. The United Nations Human released on 14 December 2015
2. In HDI Report, 2015 India has been placed at 130th position.
3. In HDI Report, 2015 India has been placed at 140th position.

Which of the statements is/are correct.

83 / 145

The Bretton Woods conference led to the establishment of
1. IMF
2. IBRD
3. United Nations
4. WTO

84 / 145

World Bank is a body

85 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

86 / 145

In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because of the increase in vapor pressure

87 / 145

The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to 

88 / 145

A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of 

89 / 145

The line softly force of the uniform magnetic field

90 / 145

The principle of cleaning by soap is 

91 / 145

Contact lenses are made from

92 / 145

The loudness of sound is related to

93 / 145

The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by

94 / 145

The Celsius temperature is a/an

95 / 145

Light waves projected on oil surface shoe seven colours die to the phenomenon of

96 / 145

Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of ink?

97 / 145

Which of the following radiations has the highest energy per quantum?

98 / 145

For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum ‘p’ and displacement ‘q’ would come out as

99 / 145

The densities of three liquids are D,  2D, and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three are mixed?

100 / 145

Which one among the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? 

101 / 145

The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is about

102 / 145

The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by

103 / 145

Electricity is produced through dry cell from

104 / 145

Cosmic rays 

105 / 145

A fan produces a feeling of comfort during the hot weather, because 

106 / 145

An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see waves produced by 

107 / 145

If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, helium and nitrogen gases respectively and left in air, which balloon reaches to the highest distance from the Earth ?

108 / 145

Which one among the following is a strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage ?

109 / 145

Choose the correct statement(s) about Akash missile

110 / 145

Choose the correct statement(s):

111 / 145

One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately 

112 / 145

Which of the following particles is the lightest ?

113 / 145

Bt seed is associated with

114 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. Stem cells have the ability to develop into any type of cell.
2. Tissue plasminogen activator is used for dissolving blood clots.
3. Dextran is a plasma expander used in blood transfusion.

Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct ?

115 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. Supercomputer Saga-220 is capable of performing at the speed above 200 TFIOPS.
2. India has only 2 supercomputer systems on the Top 500 supercomputer list of the world.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

116 / 145

Which one of the following countries has developed the Tianhe-1A, one of the world’s fastest supercomputers?

117 / 145

The first National Park, established in India is

118 / 145

The first telegraph line in India was laid between

119 / 145

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

120 / 145

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. Arundhati Roy : The God of Small Things
2. Kiran Desai : The Inheritance of Loss
3. Jhumpa Lahiri : The Namesake

121 / 145

NJAC is a commission associated with the appointment of Judges in India NJAC stand for

122 / 145

LASER stands for

123 / 145

Some atheists, skeptics and non-believers called to celebrate ‘25th December’ as Newtonmas Day instead of observing ‘Christmas Day’. The reason they propose that

124 / 145

Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?

125 / 145

The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to the 100 years of Nobel Prize-winning by Madam Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry our Future.
2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

126 / 145

Consider the following statements
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people.
2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

127 / 145

The Olympic Games in 2016 will be held in 

128 / 145

The term ‘Butterfly stroke’ is related with

129 / 145

The ‘Red Data Books’ Published by International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCNNR) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

130 / 145

The headquarters of, which one of the following is located in Paris ?

131 / 145

Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one of the following fields ?

132 / 145

Who is the proponent and propagandist of the ‘Art of Living’ ?

133 / 145

Human Resource Development Minister Smriti Irani launched the Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) scheme at which place ?

134 / 145

President Pranab Mukherjee in December 2015 has given assent to the contentious Labour Laws Bill of which state has provisions to ban strikes in public utility service for up to one year ?

135 / 145

As per the latest report released by credit rating agency Brickwork Ratings, which state is the biggest economy within India in terms of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)

136 / 145

The Union government approved a post facto agreement to expand bilateral cooperation in the field of solar energy and also approved another agreement to roll out the ‘Make in India’ campaign for the capital goods sector with which country ?

137 / 145

Which state government has launched the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 with an aim to benefit more than one third of the state’s population ?

138 / 145

Which state assembly passed the Janlokpal Bill that provides for an ombudsman with powers to act against any government functionary including those of the centre ?

139 / 145

Which state has become the first state in India to start the Rotavirus vaccination project ?

140 / 145

Choose the correct statements regarding Jason-3 Mission:

141 / 145

Prime Minister Narendra Modi released commemorative coin as part of the 125th birthday anniversary year celebrations of Dr.BR Ambedkar. What are the denominations?

142 / 145

Which state has become India’s first state to allow the members of state LEgislature to raise online questions in an effort to move towards complete digitisation of the process. The step is aimed at bringing the paperwork to minimum?

143 / 145

The Union Cabinet chaired by the prime minister Narendra Modi has given its approval to carry out official amendments in ‘The National Waterways Bill, 2015’ on the recommendations of whom?

144 / 145

Which currency was anointed as one of the worlds elite currencies in December 2015 by International Monetary Fund (IMF)

145 / 145

In December, 2015, Saudi Arabia announced how many States Islamic military alliance against terrorism ?

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